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FTFA: Accepting this kind of reasoning involves supposing consumers have diminished, or no, free will This is a fallacy, as it presupposes perfect efficiency of information. Or if you would prefer, you at minimum expose a bias. You chose a false conclusion, because in fact, in light of less than perfect knowledge of what a consumers food choice contains, the consumer does have diminished capacity to choose. This in turn having only tangentially to do with free will. Don't go there.
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